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Match play turn of play question


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#1 MaxB

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Posted 20 January 2012 - 06:26 AM

Assume this situation: player1 and player2 are playing matchplay. Player1 drives into a dried out water hasard. Point of entry being 200m from pin, ball lying 150m from pin. Player 2 drives down the fairway say 175m from pin. Player1 decides he'll try his luck and play from the hasard, so it's Player2's turn to play. Player2 plays. Then Player1 decides that after all he'll actually take a drop next to the point of entry (and hence farther away than the spot that player2 just played from). Has player2 played out of turn? Is player1 allowed to do this? Do any get penalised?

#2 Joe Blake

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Posted 20 January 2012 - 06:53 AM

Has player2 played out of turn?
No.
Is player1 allowed to do this?
Yes You will find this example or close enough is covered in the Rule book (not the Decisions)

#3 PeterS1372662245

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Posted 20 January 2012 - 08:00 AM

Max B, There is no penalty ever for playing out of turn during matchplay (Rule 10-1). But if a player does play out of turn during the play of a hole, the other play can have the shot cancelled, so the initial play has to replay the shot when he is entitled to. peter

#4 MaxB

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Posted 20 January 2012 - 08:40 AM

Max B,

There is no penalty ever for playing out of turn during matchplay (Rule 10-1).
But if a player does play out of turn during the play of a hole, the other play can have the shot cancelled, so the initial play has to replay the shot when he is entitled to.

peter

Ok thanks for the clarification, so how would it pan out in this situation? Player1 decides to drop out of the hasard AND has subsequently has Player2 replay their shot after Player1 has played from where he dropped?

#5 Joe Blake

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Posted 20 January 2012 - 09:02 AM

so how would it pan out in this situation?
Player 1 has no right to do that, as Player 2, did not play out of turn, no matter how far P1 decides to go backwards to drop his ball. The order of play is determined by where the balls came to rest in this situation Read the rule book, #10. it is covered.

#6 MaxB

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Posted 20 January 2012 - 09:13 AM

to the rule book I go! Thanks

#7 PeterS1372662245

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Posted 22 January 2012 - 06:38 AM

No, Player 2 played when it was his turn because Player 1 chose to go to his ball in the hazard. Once Player 2 plays, Player 1 may choose do take whatever procedure the rules permit. But none of them cause P2's stroke to be considered 'out of turn'. If, when walking down there, P2 may decide to take a drop from the point of entry or behind (in the water hazard example) and play before P1, but in that case, P2's original ball is now out of play. peter

#8 ejm

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Posted 22 January 2012 - 10:08 PM

No, it does not matter what Player 1 decided to do. Marktheblake is correct. Order of play depends on where the balls lie , not by the location of their next shots. The ball farther from the hole goes first.

#9 Shimonko

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Posted 23 January 2012 - 10:54 AM

Order of play depends on where the balls lie , not by the location of their next shots. The ball farther from the hole goes first.
Would you still say this is the case if player 1 had no option but to rehit from the teeing ground under 26-1a, after reading the note to 10-1a?

#10 Tommywatson

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Posted 23 January 2012 - 02:09 PM

As long as you are not both in the fairway reading through the rules book and then having a fight and holding me up behind I promise not bomb you with my drive ") Actually to do that my drive would have to go about 200 and straight so you would be safe :)

#11 ejm

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Posted 24 January 2012 - 10:59 PM

Order of play depends on where the balls lie , not by the location of their next shots. The ball farther from the hole goes first.

Would you still say this is the case if player 1 had no option but to rehit from the teeing ground under 26-1a, after reading the note to 10-1a?

 

No, of course not. But that wasn't the question I answered, was it?

#12 Shimonko

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Posted 25 January 2012 - 01:07 AM

I was describing an adjusted scenario (hence my use of 'if') and requesting your opinion. Personally I see the note to 10-1b being obvious for OOB/lost ball, but I'm not 100% convinced with a WH. Unlike OOB/lost ball for example, is there ever truly a time with a water hazard when you have no option but to rehit from the previous spot? Course geometry may may exclude 26-1b as an option, but does a submerged ball leave no option? If no attempt is made to find the ball in a WH, does that leave no option?

#13 pom

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Posted 25 January 2012 - 04:24 AM

No, it does not matter what Player 1 decided to do.
Marktheblake is correct. Order of play depends on where the balls lie , not by the location of their next shots. The ball farther from the hole goes first.

If the ball is hit low into the hazard & skips several times before disappearing. Where does the ball lie. Surely that point would be where the new ball is dropped to put it in play.

#14 Joe Blake

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Posted 25 January 2012 - 04:55 AM

Where does the ball lie. Surely that point would be where the new ball is dropped to put it in play.
It either is or it is not clearly closer to the hole. If it cannot be determined without any doubt then the order of play will be decided by lot.

#15 RulesDoc

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Posted 25 January 2012 - 06:25 AM

If the ball is hit low into the hazard, skips several times before disappearing. Where does the ball lie. Surely that point would be where the new ball is dropped to put it in play.

The point where the ball is deemed to lie when we are talking in which order to play is not a point where to drop or a point at a margin. Read Decisions 10/2 and 10/3




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