Another putting question

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This happened to me today. I hit my shot out of the bunker and it lands on the green. I was the last guy to get on the green after raking the bunker. As I walk up towards the green, another player in my group putt’s and hit’s my ball without giving my the chance to mark it. He was asked by my playing partner if he wanted my ball marked and I assumed that he didn’t think it was in his line and proceeded to putt the ball.
In this instance is there a penalty stroke applied? And on who?

 

Superman,
Were you playing match play or strokeplay, fourball or foursomes?

 

We were playing strokeplay

 

Superman,

In strokeplay the offending player gets 2 penalty strokes, R.19-5a. You should place your ball back to where is was R.18-1 or 18-5, and your fellow competitor must play his ball as it lies, R.19-5a.
In matchplay he would not have incurred penalties, R.19-5a

Johanna

 

I thought the the penalty went to the other player. He seemed to think that the penalty strokes would apply to me.

Thanks Johanna.

 

Superman,

The penalty does go to the other player, not to you. If your ball moved because it was hit by the other ball, you must replace it without penalty in its original spot, and the player whose ball hit your ball must now play his ball as it lies and add 2 penalty strokes to his score.

Regards, Johanna

 

Was the second players putt from on the green or off it. It does make a difference.

A bad day on the golf course is better than no golf at all. :(

No one who ever had a lesson would have a swing like mine

Lee Trevino

 

Pom,

The original question indicates that all balls were on the green. Superman says he was the last man to get onto the green after raking the bunker.

Johanna

 

When the word “putt” is used, I would automatically assume that the stroke is played from a place on the putting green.

If any stroke made with a putter on and off the green is called a putt, things get confusing!

Outside the putting green it’s just a “stroke”.

 

Yes, my opponent’s putt was made on the green.

 

When the word “putt” is used, I would automatically assume that the stroke is played from a place on the putting green.

If any stroke made with a putter on and off the green is called a putt, things get confusing!

Outside the putting green it’s just a “stroke”.

If the putt was made off the green, would there still be a penalty stroke applied. I’ve seen people chip just off the green and hit another person’s ball with no penalty stroke applied.

 

If the putt was made off the green, would there still be a penalty stroke applied. I’ve seen people chip just off the green and hit another person’s ball with no penalty stroke applied.

No, read the Rules to which Johanna has referred.

 

HI,

Just borrow the topic heading and sneak in a quick question.

Is there any penalty for the player who putted the ball on the green with the ball marker still placed on the green behind the ball?
This was a silly omission and not an intentional line-of-putt marking.

Appreciate if the relevant Rules/Decision reference be quoted.

Thanks

 

Shank,

The Definition of “Line of Putt” says that it is the line a player wishes his ball to take after a stroke. The ball marker is not on the “line of putt” therefore I don’t think it is a breach of the Rules (8-2) to leave the ball-marker in place when making a stroke.

 

HI,

Just borrow the topic heading and sneak in a quick question.

Is there any penalty for the player who putted the ball on the green with the ball marker still placed on the green behind the ball?
This was a silly omission and not an intentional line-of-putt marking.

Appreciate if the relevant Rules/Decision reference be quoted.

Thanks

When a ball is replaced on the putting green it’s in play whether or not the ball marker is removed. (Decision 20-4/1)
The Decision do not mention this as a possible breach of the Rules.

 

Providing the marker is not ‘indicating a line for putting’ (8-2b) there is no rule preventing it.

A long slim pencil for example might indicate the line.

 

Many thanks JohannaC, RulesDoc and AAA for the explanations and insight.

 

Here is a question from a quiz, which I hope to have your views:

“After fully addressing the ball on the putting green, John makes an inadvertent strike of the ball. It moves forward only slightly and, having been resting in a ball-mark, rolls back to it’s original position.

Does the inadvertent stroke count toward John’s score?”

The answer it gave was that as the ball did not “move” according to the definitions, there was no breach of a Rule, and so no penalty.

While I appreciate the no penalty part, I am not sure if John has made a stroke, according to the difinitions. Just from the above description of the situation, do you read it as John intended to strike at the ball, but then changed his mind and stopped just in time not to move the ball?

To take it further, if John did changed his mind, but unfortunately did move the ball, can he say he had no intention of the stroke in the first place? I thought once a player has taken his stance and addressed the ball, any movement of the ball is deemed to be caused by the player, and incurs a penalty stroke.

Your analysis would help my understanding

 

Here is a question from a quiz, which I hope to have your views:

“After fully addressing the ball on the putting green, John makes an inadvertent strike of the ball. It moves forward only slightly and, having been resting in a ball-mark, rolls back to it’s original position.

Does the inadvertent stroke count toward John’s score?”

The answer it gave was that as the ball did not “move” according to the definitions, there was no breach of a Rule, and so no penalty.

While I appreciate the no penalty part, I am not sure if John has made a stroke, according to the difinitions. Just from the above description of the situation, do you read it as John intended to strike at the ball, but then changed his mind and stopped just in time not to move the ball?

To take it further, if John did changed his mind, but unfortunately did move the ball, can he say he had no intention of the stroke in the first place? I thought once a player has taken his stance and addressed the ball, any movement of the ball is deemed to be caused by the player, and incurs a penalty stroke.

Your analysis would help my understanding

A stroke is defined as the forward movement of the club with the INTENTION of striking the ball SO IT WAS NOT A STROKE. And the ball DIDN’T move as it hadn’t come to rest in a different place.

If you think your arse looks big in that it probably does,next question

 

Thanks Hybrid,

So to check my understanding, because John made an “inadvertant” strike of the ball, there was no stroke, and the ball did not move as it did not come to rest in a different place. So no stroke and no penalty.

Can I compare this to a player making a practice swing and inadvertantly moved the ball? There is no stroke, but a penalty for moving the ball at rest.

Then compare this to a player making a swing at the ball but missed it completely. As he intended to make a stroke, although the ball did not move, the air-swing stroke counts. The same goes for an attempt to make a 60ft putt and yet missed the ball completely by the putter.

Is my understanding correct now?

Shank

 

So to check my understanding, because John made an “inadvertant” strike of the ball, there was no stroke, and the ball did not move as it did not come to rest in a different place. So no stroke and no penalty.


Correct. But it depends on how far it travelled before it came back to base. If it was accidentally knocked 6” uphill and it rolls back into the pitchmark, I would suggest that is not ‘oscillating’, which the decision describes.

Can I compare this to a player making a practice swing and inadvertantly moved the ball? There is no stroke, but a penalty for moving the ball at rest.


Correct but if the ball was on the tee there is no penalty because the ball was not yet in play.

Then compare this to a player making a swing at the ball but missed it completely. As he intended to make a stroke, although the ball did not move, the air-swing stroke counts. The same goes for an attempt to make a 60ft putt and yet missed the ball completely by the putter.

Is my understanding correct now?


Yes. A ‘miss’ is a miss whatever club is being used and wherever the ball is on the course.

 

Thanks AAA,

Just one more clarification and I am done!

On the tee, a player in stroke play made a stroke but missed ball completely, so one stroke is counted, and ball is in play, although still sits on tee.

Then he tried to make another stroke; while addressing the ball, it fell off tee. As ball is in play, he got penalised for moving ball at rest.

Must he replace ball on the tee, else is in breach of Rule 18-2?

He became so nervous, made some practice swings, and one swing caught the ball on the tee accidentally. But that is not a stroke, and he got penalised again for moving the ball at rest as the ball is still in play.

So, he has to replace the ball on the tee again. Made a big swing and sent the ball out of bounds. Frustrated, he just threw another ball on the teeing ground and made another stroke.

Counting this last stroke, he has hit his 6th , correct?

All these times, is he allowed / required to replace the ball onto the tee, although he did not on the last one?

Thanks again AAA as you always make good obwervations.

 

shank

If you look at decisions 18-2a/1 and 18-2a/2 you should be able to work it out. I’m pushed for time at the moment. Big comp on later this morning and function afterwards.

Answer your own post going through each item in turn and inserting your conclusion. Adding up as you go along.

I’ll be happy to check it out

 

Thanks AAA for directing to appropriate place. Hope you had a good day and function.

Now I know when you should re-tee the ball, and the stroke-and-distance override.

Looking at my quoted example, I think the player was hitting his 6th stroke as I previously thought.

Do you agree?

 

Shank
1) I did, thank you. My wife won the Ladies comp.
2) I do.

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